I got this one 4hisglory:
The Original PostD / Bb-C-D-F Now be-.............1
Eb / G-Bb-C-F hold the...........4
F / G-A-C-F Lamb.................5
/ F-F (octave higher)
/ Bb, A the
D / C-F-Bb Precious..............1
Eb / G-C-F Lamb of...............4
F / A-C-F God....................5
/ F-F (octave higher)...................5
D / C-D-F-Bb born into...........1
Eb / G-Bb-C-F sin that I.........4
F / A-C-F may....................5
F# / A-C-D live a-
G / G-Bb-D gain, the............6
C / Bb-Eb-G Precious............2
F, C, F / Bb-Eb-F Lamb of.......5
Bb / Bb-D-F God.................1
(repeat many times)
I don't really think of it as a 3 chord per say, just as a 3 cuz there is a 3 in the bass. To call it a 1 chord or a 3 chord by itself, in my opinion, would both be incorrect. You should say a 1 chord with a 3 in the bass. But, I understood perfectly what u meant, just want to eliminate confusion for the beginners who just learning this stuff.
So if this is true, can you post this again? Sorry about the confusion. Thanks for the reply though.
Revised Post to fit statement above
D / Bb-C-D-F Now be-.............3 *1 chord w/3 in the bass
Eb / G-Bb-C-F hold the...........4
F / G-A-C-F Lamb.................5
/ F-F (octave higher)
/ Bb, A the
D / C-F-Bb Precious..............3 *1 chord w/3 in the bass
Eb / G-C-F Lamb of...............4
F / A-C-F God....................5
/ F-F (octave higher)...................5
D / C-D-F-Bb born into...........3 *1 chord w/3 in the bass
Eb / G-Bb-C-F sin that I.........4
F / A-C-F may....................5
F# / A-C-D live a-
G / G-Bb-D gain, the............6
C / Bb-Eb-G Precious............2
F, C, F / Bb-Eb-F Lamb of.......5
Bb / Bb-D-F God.................1
(repeat many times)
Is that better nextlevelmusic?